1. What is the DDL, DML, TCL
3. What are the Different data types
4. What are the DB Constraints?
5. What is the Primary Key and Foreign Key
6. What are DB objects
7. What is the View, Synonym, Index
8. What is the Join, what are the Different types
9. hat is meant by Equi Join ,Self Join, Outer Join
10. write a query to display the Employee who are getting salary 30000
11. To display the sal between 10000 and 30000, select * from emp where sal>=10000 and sal =30000;
12. To select 1000 ,2000 only from Sal. Select * from emp where sal in (1000,2000); in ( ) provides search of exact values.
13. Display the name employee starts with letter R .. select ename from emp where ename like ‘R%’ ;
14. elect ename having 4 letters…select ename from emp where ename like ‘----‘;
15. rite query who’s job is manger & sal =3000select * from emp wher job =’manger’ and sal = 3000;
16. How to get Highest second salary
17. What is Sub Queries, Order By, and Group By.
18. What is Having Class, Distinct, Concatenation
19. What is the Difference between Truncate and Delete?
20. What is the Diff between Union and Join?
21. What is Procedures, Packeges, Functions,Triggures (PL/SQL)
Wednesday, May 12, 2010
BASIC INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Why did you ever become involved in QA/testing?
2. What is the testing lifecycle and explain each of its phases?
3. What is the difference between testing and Quality Assurance?
4. What is Negative testing?
5. What was a problem you had in your previous assignment (testing if possible)? How did you resolve it?
6. How would you define Quality Assurance?
7. What is the Waterfall Development Method and do you agree with all the steps?
8. What is the V-Model Development Method and do you agree with this model?
9. What is the Capability Maturity Model (CMM)? At what CMM level were the last few companies you worked?
10. What is a “Good Tester”?
11. Could you tell me two things you did in your previous assignment (QA/Testing-related hopefully) that you are proud of?
12. What methodologies have you used to develop test cases?
13. In an application currently in production, one module of code is being modified. Is it necessary to re-test the whole application or is it enough to just test functionality associated with that module?
14. Define Verification and Validation. Explain the differences between the two.
15. Explain the differences between White-box, Gray-box, and Black box testing.
16. Define the following and explain their usefulness: Change Management, Configuration Management, Version Control, and Defect Tracking.
17. What is the difference between a test strategy and a test plan?
18. What are ISO standards? Why are they important?
19. What is IEEE? Why is it important?
20. Do you support automated testing? Why?
21. Are regression tests required or do you feel there is a better use for resources?
22. What is meant by the bug state "Reproduce"
23. What is the test case, test scenario, test suit and explain differences bewteen the above ones
24. where do u store u'r Test cases?
25. what type of documents can u prepare during Testing?
26. what is tracebility matrix? what is negative testing
27. how can u do regression testing tell me procedure?
28. What are all the documents you are going to submit at the time of release as a testlead?
29. what is test procedure?
30. For what purpose are virtual users created?
31. how to test load,stress and performance test for web.
32. What types of documents would you need for QA, QC, and Testing?
33. What is the different between project and a product?
34. Why did you choose software?
35. Software development life cycle ?
36. Software Testing Life Cycle?
37. What kind of testing you are performed?
38. What is a release notes ? what does it contains?
39. Explain about your current project?
40. What is your role in your project?
41. What are the tools you used?
42. What are the bug tracking tools you used?
43. How many Test Cases you have written for the current project?
44. What are the different types of testing you have done?
45. V-model
2. What is the testing lifecycle and explain each of its phases?
3. What is the difference between testing and Quality Assurance?
4. What is Negative testing?
5. What was a problem you had in your previous assignment (testing if possible)? How did you resolve it?
6. How would you define Quality Assurance?
7. What is the Waterfall Development Method and do you agree with all the steps?
8. What is the V-Model Development Method and do you agree with this model?
9. What is the Capability Maturity Model (CMM)? At what CMM level were the last few companies you worked?
10. What is a “Good Tester”?
11. Could you tell me two things you did in your previous assignment (QA/Testing-related hopefully) that you are proud of?
12. What methodologies have you used to develop test cases?
13. In an application currently in production, one module of code is being modified. Is it necessary to re-test the whole application or is it enough to just test functionality associated with that module?
14. Define Verification and Validation. Explain the differences between the two.
15. Explain the differences between White-box, Gray-box, and Black box testing.
16. Define the following and explain their usefulness: Change Management, Configuration Management, Version Control, and Defect Tracking.
17. What is the difference between a test strategy and a test plan?
18. What are ISO standards? Why are they important?
19. What is IEEE? Why is it important?
20. Do you support automated testing? Why?
21. Are regression tests required or do you feel there is a better use for resources?
22. What is meant by the bug state "Reproduce"
23. What is the test case, test scenario, test suit and explain differences bewteen the above ones
24. where do u store u'r Test cases?
25. what type of documents can u prepare during Testing?
26. what is tracebility matrix? what is negative testing
27. how can u do regression testing tell me procedure?
28. What are all the documents you are going to submit at the time of release as a testlead?
29. what is test procedure?
30. For what purpose are virtual users created?
31. how to test load,stress and performance test for web.
32. What types of documents would you need for QA, QC, and Testing?
33. What is the different between project and a product?
34. Why did you choose software?
35. Software development life cycle ?
36. Software Testing Life Cycle?
37. What kind of testing you are performed?
38. What is a release notes ? what does it contains?
39. Explain about your current project?
40. What is your role in your project?
41. What are the tools you used?
42. What are the bug tracking tools you used?
43. How many Test Cases you have written for the current project?
44. What are the different types of testing you have done?
45. V-model
INTERVIEW QUESTIONS FOR A CANDIDATE HAVING EXPERIENCE
1. So, tell me something about yourself?
2. Name 3 positive and 3 negative qualities of yours.
3. Where do you see yourself professionally, in 3-5 years?
4. What is the most exciting and boring part of your job?
5. Do you prefer teamwork or individual?
6. What is the most significant responsibility you have ever had in your life?
7. You are assigned to work on an important project containing 7 design modules and you are short of time. By the end of the month all you can do is either to have 3 modules accomplished or to have all 7 modules started in parallel but not finished. What strategy will you choose?
8. Why do you want to leave your present job?
9. What do you know about our company?
10. Tell us about one of the technical problems you had to solve recently
11. Tell me about your company?
12. Why did you choose testing as your career?
13. What is your career objective?
14. Given an opportunity in testing and development which field will you choose and why?
15. Why did you choose software?
16. Ur Team Size?
CSTE Mock Test 1
Question 1 of 25
By performing --------- during the early phases of software dev, the cost of testing can be reduced because defects are found earlier in the process.
1. Dynamic Testing
2. Quality Testing
3. Static Testing
4. Effective Testing
5. All the above
Question 2 of 25
Which one of them is not one of the four components of the software development process life cycle?
1. Check
2. Create
3. Plan
4. Action
5. None of the above
Question 3 of 25
-----------is a term used to quantify the total cost of failure, appraisal and prevention costs associated with the production of software.
1. Production cost
2. Engineering cost
3. Development cost
4. None of the above
Question 4 of 25
A key concept of quality control is that all work products
1. are delivered on time and under budget
2. have complete documentation
3. have measurable specifications for process outputs
4. are thoroughly tested before delivered to the customer
Question 5 of 25
Primary role of software testing includes
1. Producer view
2. Customer view
3. Product view
4. Both a & b
5. All a, b, c
Question 6 of 25
Which one doesn’t belong to the category of defects
1. Variance from Process specifications
2. Variance from Product specifications
3. Variance from Customer specifications
4. Variance from User specifications
Question 7 of 25
Who doesn’t participate in testing?
1. Software User
2. Auditor
3. Senior organization management
4. Information services Management
5. All the above
6. None of the above
Question 8 of 25
One problem condition, such as a wrong price or a program defect, causing hundreds of similar errors within few minutes is called
1. Cascaded Effect
2. Mc Donald’s Effect
3. Domino Effect
4. None of the above
Question 9 of 25
Defects doesn’t fall into one of the following category
1. Inadequate data
2. Wrong
3. Missing
4. Extra
Question 10 of 25
Testing activity not being the last one in the development process was the best approach
1. True
2. False
Question 11 of 25
--------------- means testing until the optimum point is reached, which is the point where the cost of testing no longer exceeds the value received from the defects uncovered.
1. Cost of Quality
2. Cost-effective perspective
3. Both
4. None of the above
Question 12 of 25
------------ is the means used by organizations to minimize risk.
1. Costing
2. Quality Assurance
3. Controls
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 25
The criteria involved in Testing Policy is
1. Definition of Testing
2. Testing System
3. Evaluation
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Question 14 of 25
Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
1. 10-20
2. 40-50
3. 70-80
4. 5-10
Question 15 of 25
A review is what category of cost of quality?
1. Preventive
2. Appraisal
3. Failure
Question 16 of 25
The components of Testing Strategy are
1. Test Factor
2. Test Phase
3. Test Scope
4. Both a&b
5. Both b&c
Question 17 of 25
Testing is the organizational responsibility
1. True
2. False
Question 18 of 25
Majority of the system errors occur in Requirements phase
1. True
2. False
Question 19 of 25
Which of them is not a step to be followed to develop a customized test strategy
1. Select and Rank Test Factors
2. Identify the System Development Phases
3. Identify the Business Risks associated with the System under development
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Question 20 of 25
The cost of defect identification and correction decreases as the project progresses
1. True
2. False
Question 21 of 25
Verification generally means
1. Consistency
2. Completeness
3. Correctness
4. All the above
Question 22 of 25
Test Factors doesn’t include
1. File Integrity
2. Correctness
3. Continuity of Processing
4. None of the above
Question 23 of 25
Verification and Validation are mutually exclusive
1. True
2. False
Question 24 of 25
Validation physically ensures that the system operates according to plan by executing the system functions thru a series of tests
1. True
2. False
Question 25 of 25
-------------------- is called black box testing
1. Structural
2. Functional
3. Both
4. None of the above
CSTE Mock Test 2
Question 1 of 26
Testing methodology doesn’t include
1. Build the system test plan
2. Build the unit test plan
3. Determine the project scope
4. Identify the tactical risks
5. None of the above
Question 2 of 26
Decision /Condition coverage is a part of
1. Black Box Testing
2. White Box Testing
3. Incremental Testing
4. Thread Testing
Question 3 of 26
Workbench concept doesn’t have
1. Procedures to Do
2. Input
3. Procedures to Check
4. Output
5. None of the above
Question 4 of 26
Driver modules are used in
1. Thread Testing
2. Bottom up Incremental testing
3. Top down Incremental Testing
4. Black Box testing
Question 5 of 26
Regression testing doesn’t include
1. Unit Regression testing
2. Regional Regression Testing
3. Full Regression Testing
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Interim stubs are used in
1. Black box testing
2. White Box testing
3. Thread testing
4. Incremental Testing
Question 7 of 26
Peer review is a formal review
1. True
2. False
Question 8 of 26
At a minimum the developer should always execute -------------- when a change is made
1. Regional
2. Unit
3. Full
4. All the above
Question 9 of 26
Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?
1. Adopt a new philosophy
2. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force
3. Mobility of management
4. Create constancy of purpose
5. None of the above
Question 10 of 26
Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?
1. transcendent
2. product-based
3. translucent
4. user-based
5. value-based
6. manufacturing based
Question 11 of 26
Which is not a good guideline while making oral presentation?
1. A Sell corporate experience of your project staff and yourself.
2. Emphasize that you are presenting the best solution to the customer’s problem.
3. Emphasize on your benefits on implementing this system.
4. Emphasize that your project team is well equipped to implement the solution.
Question 12 of 26
Which one of these is not Cost of Quality?
1. Failure Cost
2. Prevention cost
3. Appraisal cost
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 26
The cost to do the system versus benefits derived from the proposed system should be --------------------
1. Included in presentation of system proposal.
2. Orally presented during the system proposal presentation.
3. Orally presented as part of closing.
Question 14 of 26
The unit testing of the completed code will be done during which of the following phases
1. Initiation - Phase I
2. Definition - Phase II
3. System Design - Phase III
4. Programming and training - Phase IV
5. Evaluation and Acceptance - Phase V
6. Installation and Operation - Phase VI
Question 15 of 26
Project plan specifying a strategy for managing SDLC development, certification and accreditation is prepared during which of the following phases.
1. Initiation - Phase I
2. Definition - Phase II
3. System Design - Phase III
4. Programming and training - Phase IV
5. Evaluation and Acceptance - Phase V
6. Installation and Operation - Phase VI
Question 16 of 26
Audit plan is prepared during the definition phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 17 of 26
Which of these is Therapeutic Listening?
1. Directed at selecting specific pieces of information and not entire communication.
2. Designed to get a complete message with minimal distortion.
3. The listener is sympathetic to listener’s point of view.
4. The listener is performing an analysis of what speaker said.
Question 18 of 26
VV&T results would be documented and a comparison of actual and expected results are made during the
1. Evaluation and Acceptance phase
2. Installation and Operation phase
3. Programming and Training phase
4. System Design phase
Question 19 of 26
Resource planning for Verification, Validation and Testing (VV&T) should be included in the project plan during the System design phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 20 of 26
Which of the following is not a key element of Defect Management Process?
1. Defect Prevention
2. Defect Tracking
3. Defect Discovery
4. Defect Resolution
5. None of the above
Question 21 of 26
Resource planning for Verification, Validation and Testing (VV&T) should be included in the project plan during the System design phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 22 of 26
Which one of the following is not a general principle of Defect Management Process?
1. The Primary Goal is to prevent defects
2. Defect Management Process should be Risk Driven
3. Capture and Analysis of information should be automated
4. Defect Information should be used to improve the process
5. None of the above
Question 23 of 26
Which of the following is not a defect category?
1. Missing
2. Insufficient
3. Inaccurate
4. Incomplete
5. None of the above
Question 24 of 26
Which one of the following is not a technique to reduce Expected Impact of Risk?
1. Training and Education (Work Force)
2. Quality Assurance
3. Defensive Design
4. Defensive Code
5. None of the above
Question 25 of 26
While preparing the Acceptance Criteria, the user should
1. Acquire Full Knowledge of the application
2. Become fully acquainted with the application
3. Understand the Risks and Benefits
4. Understand the consequences of adding new functions
5. All the above
6. a, c and d only
Question 26 of 26
John is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. He reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as Coding errors, Requirement errors, documentation errors, etc.The best tool to report this information is:
1. A Scatter plot
2. A Pareto diagram
3. A Histogram
4. A Cause and Effect Diagram
CSTE Mock Test 3
Question 1 of 25
Which is the reputed testing standard?
1. M. Bridge awards
2. ISO
3. IEEE
4. None of the above
Question 2 of 25
Which one of these is not a statistical test tool?
1. Pareto analysis
2. Check sheet
3. Run harts
4. Flow Charts
Question 3 of 25
What are Histograms commonly know as;
1. Pie charts
2. Scatter plots
3. Bar Charts
4. None of the above
Question 4 of 25
A form used to gather and record data in an organized manner to help determine the occurrence of an event/cause
1. Check sheet
2. Cause and effect diagram
3. Control charts
4. None of the above
Question 5 of 25
The Pareto analysis is most effective for
1. ranking items by importance
2. Showing relationships between items
3. Measuring the impact of identified items
Question 6 of 25
What is Pareto charts commonly know as?
1. 80-20
2. Scatter plots
3. Check sheet
4. None of the above
Question 7 of 25
Test engineer is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. He/she reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as coding errors, requirements errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is:
1. A histogram
2. A Pareto diagram
3. A cause and effect diagram
4. A scatter plot
Question 8 of 25
Which of the following test approaches is not a structured test approach?
1. Load/Stress
2. Operations
3. Regression
4. None of the above
Question 9 of 25
One of the tools, which we won’t use in all phases
1. Checklist
2. Defect Trackers
3. Inspection
4. Walkthroughs
Question 10 of 25
___ is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards
1. Quality assurance
2. Quality control
3. None of the above
4. a and b
Question 11 of 25
Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that
1. low level modules never need testing
2. major decision points are tested early
3. no stubs need to be written
4. none of the above
Question 12 of 25
Quality control over quality control is…
1. Quality Assurance
2. Testing
3. Verification
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 25
Procedure is step-by-step method followed to ensure that ______ are met
1. Requirements
2. Standards
3. Goals
4. Policy
Question 14 of 25
Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in three areas…
1. Organizational obstacles
2. Problems arising from the tools
3. Obstacles in the computer environment
4. All the above
Question 15 of 25
The objective of the workbench is to produce the defined output products in a
1. Clear manner
2. Perfect manner
3. Understandable manner
4. Defect-free manner
Question 16 of 25
____ is managerial desires and intents concerning either process or products
1. Standards
2. Procedure
3. Policy
4. None of the above
Question 17 of 25
---------------is a condition that can result in a loss to an organization?
1. Threat
2. Control
3. Risk
4. Vulnerability
Question 18 of 25
Policies do not define specific products or procedures
1. True
2. False
Question 19 of 25
Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) that
1. major decision points are tested early
2. no drivers need to be written
3. no stubs need to be written
4. regression testing is not required
Question 20 of 25
-------------is a trigger that causes the risk to become a loss
1. Risk
2. Threat
3. Vulnerability
4. Control
Question 21 of 25
Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.
1. True
2. False
Question 22 of 25
Smoke testing might best be described as
1. bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software
2. rolling integration testing
3. testing that hides implementation errors
4. unit testing for small programs
Question 23 of 25
-----------------is the process of evaluating risks,threats,controls and vulnerabilities
1. Risk Avoidance
2. Risk Mitigation
3. Risk Acceptance
4. Risk Analysis
Question 24 of 25
Anything that tends to cause the reduction of Risk is known as ----------
1. Control
2. Risk
3. Threat
4. Vulnerability
Question 25 of 25
-----------is a design, implementation or operation flaw that may be exploited by a threat to cause destruction or misuse of its assets or resources?
1. Risk
2. Threat
3. Vulnerability
4. Control
By performing --------- during the early phases of software dev, the cost of testing can be reduced because defects are found earlier in the process.
1. Dynamic Testing
2. Quality Testing
3. Static Testing
4. Effective Testing
5. All the above
Question 2 of 25
Which one of them is not one of the four components of the software development process life cycle?
1. Check
2. Create
3. Plan
4. Action
5. None of the above
Question 3 of 25
-----------is a term used to quantify the total cost of failure, appraisal and prevention costs associated with the production of software.
1. Production cost
2. Engineering cost
3. Development cost
4. None of the above
Question 4 of 25
A key concept of quality control is that all work products
1. are delivered on time and under budget
2. have complete documentation
3. have measurable specifications for process outputs
4. are thoroughly tested before delivered to the customer
Question 5 of 25
Primary role of software testing includes
1. Producer view
2. Customer view
3. Product view
4. Both a & b
5. All a, b, c
Question 6 of 25
Which one doesn’t belong to the category of defects
1. Variance from Process specifications
2. Variance from Product specifications
3. Variance from Customer specifications
4. Variance from User specifications
Question 7 of 25
Who doesn’t participate in testing?
1. Software User
2. Auditor
3. Senior organization management
4. Information services Management
5. All the above
6. None of the above
Question 8 of 25
One problem condition, such as a wrong price or a program defect, causing hundreds of similar errors within few minutes is called
1. Cascaded Effect
2. Mc Donald’s Effect
3. Domino Effect
4. None of the above
Question 9 of 25
Defects doesn’t fall into one of the following category
1. Inadequate data
2. Wrong
3. Missing
4. Extra
Question 10 of 25
Testing activity not being the last one in the development process was the best approach
1. True
2. False
Question 11 of 25
--------------- means testing until the optimum point is reached, which is the point where the cost of testing no longer exceeds the value received from the defects uncovered.
1. Cost of Quality
2. Cost-effective perspective
3. Both
4. None of the above
Question 12 of 25
------------ is the means used by organizations to minimize risk.
1. Costing
2. Quality Assurance
3. Controls
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 25
The criteria involved in Testing Policy is
1. Definition of Testing
2. Testing System
3. Evaluation
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Question 14 of 25
Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
1. 10-20
2. 40-50
3. 70-80
4. 5-10
Question 15 of 25
A review is what category of cost of quality?
1. Preventive
2. Appraisal
3. Failure
Question 16 of 25
The components of Testing Strategy are
1. Test Factor
2. Test Phase
3. Test Scope
4. Both a&b
5. Both b&c
Question 17 of 25
Testing is the organizational responsibility
1. True
2. False
Question 18 of 25
Majority of the system errors occur in Requirements phase
1. True
2. False
Question 19 of 25
Which of them is not a step to be followed to develop a customized test strategy
1. Select and Rank Test Factors
2. Identify the System Development Phases
3. Identify the Business Risks associated with the System under development
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Question 20 of 25
The cost of defect identification and correction decreases as the project progresses
1. True
2. False
Question 21 of 25
Verification generally means
1. Consistency
2. Completeness
3. Correctness
4. All the above
Question 22 of 25
Test Factors doesn’t include
1. File Integrity
2. Correctness
3. Continuity of Processing
4. None of the above
Question 23 of 25
Verification and Validation are mutually exclusive
1. True
2. False
Question 24 of 25
Validation physically ensures that the system operates according to plan by executing the system functions thru a series of tests
1. True
2. False
Question 25 of 25
-------------------- is called black box testing
1. Structural
2. Functional
3. Both
4. None of the above
CSTE Mock Test 2
Question 1 of 26
Testing methodology doesn’t include
1. Build the system test plan
2. Build the unit test plan
3. Determine the project scope
4. Identify the tactical risks
5. None of the above
Question 2 of 26
Decision /Condition coverage is a part of
1. Black Box Testing
2. White Box Testing
3. Incremental Testing
4. Thread Testing
Question 3 of 26
Workbench concept doesn’t have
1. Procedures to Do
2. Input
3. Procedures to Check
4. Output
5. None of the above
Question 4 of 26
Driver modules are used in
1. Thread Testing
2. Bottom up Incremental testing
3. Top down Incremental Testing
4. Black Box testing
Question 5 of 26
Regression testing doesn’t include
1. Unit Regression testing
2. Regional Regression Testing
3. Full Regression Testing
4. All the above
5. None of the above
Interim stubs are used in
1. Black box testing
2. White Box testing
3. Thread testing
4. Incremental Testing
Question 7 of 26
Peer review is a formal review
1. True
2. False
Question 8 of 26
At a minimum the developer should always execute -------------- when a change is made
1. Regional
2. Unit
3. Full
4. All the above
Question 9 of 26
Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?
1. Adopt a new philosophy
2. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force
3. Mobility of management
4. Create constancy of purpose
5. None of the above
Question 10 of 26
Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?
1. transcendent
2. product-based
3. translucent
4. user-based
5. value-based
6. manufacturing based
Question 11 of 26
Which is not a good guideline while making oral presentation?
1. A Sell corporate experience of your project staff and yourself.
2. Emphasize that you are presenting the best solution to the customer’s problem.
3. Emphasize on your benefits on implementing this system.
4. Emphasize that your project team is well equipped to implement the solution.
Question 12 of 26
Which one of these is not Cost of Quality?
1. Failure Cost
2. Prevention cost
3. Appraisal cost
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 26
The cost to do the system versus benefits derived from the proposed system should be --------------------
1. Included in presentation of system proposal.
2. Orally presented during the system proposal presentation.
3. Orally presented as part of closing.
Question 14 of 26
The unit testing of the completed code will be done during which of the following phases
1. Initiation - Phase I
2. Definition - Phase II
3. System Design - Phase III
4. Programming and training - Phase IV
5. Evaluation and Acceptance - Phase V
6. Installation and Operation - Phase VI
Question 15 of 26
Project plan specifying a strategy for managing SDLC development, certification and accreditation is prepared during which of the following phases.
1. Initiation - Phase I
2. Definition - Phase II
3. System Design - Phase III
4. Programming and training - Phase IV
5. Evaluation and Acceptance - Phase V
6. Installation and Operation - Phase VI
Question 16 of 26
Audit plan is prepared during the definition phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 17 of 26
Which of these is Therapeutic Listening?
1. Directed at selecting specific pieces of information and not entire communication.
2. Designed to get a complete message with minimal distortion.
3. The listener is sympathetic to listener’s point of view.
4. The listener is performing an analysis of what speaker said.
Question 18 of 26
VV&T results would be documented and a comparison of actual and expected results are made during the
1. Evaluation and Acceptance phase
2. Installation and Operation phase
3. Programming and Training phase
4. System Design phase
Question 19 of 26
Resource planning for Verification, Validation and Testing (VV&T) should be included in the project plan during the System design phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 20 of 26
Which of the following is not a key element of Defect Management Process?
1. Defect Prevention
2. Defect Tracking
3. Defect Discovery
4. Defect Resolution
5. None of the above
Question 21 of 26
Resource planning for Verification, Validation and Testing (VV&T) should be included in the project plan during the System design phase.
1. True
2. False
Question 22 of 26
Which one of the following is not a general principle of Defect Management Process?
1. The Primary Goal is to prevent defects
2. Defect Management Process should be Risk Driven
3. Capture and Analysis of information should be automated
4. Defect Information should be used to improve the process
5. None of the above
Question 23 of 26
Which of the following is not a defect category?
1. Missing
2. Insufficient
3. Inaccurate
4. Incomplete
5. None of the above
Question 24 of 26
Which one of the following is not a technique to reduce Expected Impact of Risk?
1. Training and Education (Work Force)
2. Quality Assurance
3. Defensive Design
4. Defensive Code
5. None of the above
Question 25 of 26
While preparing the Acceptance Criteria, the user should
1. Acquire Full Knowledge of the application
2. Become fully acquainted with the application
3. Understand the Risks and Benefits
4. Understand the consequences of adding new functions
5. All the above
6. a, c and d only
Question 26 of 26
John is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. He reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as Coding errors, Requirement errors, documentation errors, etc.The best tool to report this information is:
1. A Scatter plot
2. A Pareto diagram
3. A Histogram
4. A Cause and Effect Diagram
CSTE Mock Test 3
Question 1 of 25
Which is the reputed testing standard?
1. M. Bridge awards
2. ISO
3. IEEE
4. None of the above
Question 2 of 25
Which one of these is not a statistical test tool?
1. Pareto analysis
2. Check sheet
3. Run harts
4. Flow Charts
Question 3 of 25
What are Histograms commonly know as;
1. Pie charts
2. Scatter plots
3. Bar Charts
4. None of the above
Question 4 of 25
A form used to gather and record data in an organized manner to help determine the occurrence of an event/cause
1. Check sheet
2. Cause and effect diagram
3. Control charts
4. None of the above
Question 5 of 25
The Pareto analysis is most effective for
1. ranking items by importance
2. Showing relationships between items
3. Measuring the impact of identified items
Question 6 of 25
What is Pareto charts commonly know as?
1. 80-20
2. Scatter plots
3. Check sheet
4. None of the above
Question 7 of 25
Test engineer is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. He/she reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as coding errors, requirements errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is:
1. A histogram
2. A Pareto diagram
3. A cause and effect diagram
4. A scatter plot
Question 8 of 25
Which of the following test approaches is not a structured test approach?
1. Load/Stress
2. Operations
3. Regression
4. None of the above
Question 9 of 25
One of the tools, which we won’t use in all phases
1. Checklist
2. Defect Trackers
3. Inspection
4. Walkthroughs
Question 10 of 25
___ is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards
1. Quality assurance
2. Quality control
3. None of the above
4. a and b
Question 11 of 25
Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that
1. low level modules never need testing
2. major decision points are tested early
3. no stubs need to be written
4. none of the above
Question 12 of 25
Quality control over quality control is…
1. Quality Assurance
2. Testing
3. Verification
4. None of the above
Question 13 of 25
Procedure is step-by-step method followed to ensure that ______ are met
1. Requirements
2. Standards
3. Goals
4. Policy
Question 14 of 25
Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in three areas…
1. Organizational obstacles
2. Problems arising from the tools
3. Obstacles in the computer environment
4. All the above
Question 15 of 25
The objective of the workbench is to produce the defined output products in a
1. Clear manner
2. Perfect manner
3. Understandable manner
4. Defect-free manner
Question 16 of 25
____ is managerial desires and intents concerning either process or products
1. Standards
2. Procedure
3. Policy
4. None of the above
Question 17 of 25
---------------is a condition that can result in a loss to an organization?
1. Threat
2. Control
3. Risk
4. Vulnerability
Question 18 of 25
Policies do not define specific products or procedures
1. True
2. False
Question 19 of 25
Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) that
1. major decision points are tested early
2. no drivers need to be written
3. no stubs need to be written
4. regression testing is not required
Question 20 of 25
-------------is a trigger that causes the risk to become a loss
1. Risk
2. Threat
3. Vulnerability
4. Control
Question 21 of 25
Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.
1. True
2. False
Question 22 of 25
Smoke testing might best be described as
1. bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software
2. rolling integration testing
3. testing that hides implementation errors
4. unit testing for small programs
Question 23 of 25
-----------------is the process of evaluating risks,threats,controls and vulnerabilities
1. Risk Avoidance
2. Risk Mitigation
3. Risk Acceptance
4. Risk Analysis
Question 24 of 25
Anything that tends to cause the reduction of Risk is known as ----------
1. Control
2. Risk
3. Threat
4. Vulnerability
Question 25 of 25
-----------is a design, implementation or operation flaw that may be exploited by a threat to cause destruction or misuse of its assets or resources?
1. Risk
2. Threat
3. Vulnerability
4. Control
Tuesday, May 04, 2010
QTP QnA2
1. How do you do your reusable and shared process in your project?
By using shared ACTION s
2. What is TOProperty and ROperoperty
TO Property is a TEST OBJECT property which will have minimum no.of properties and methods where as RUNTIME OBJECT property will have all the possible properties and methods which would helpful in runtime.
3. I am running the script and at some point the pop up might appears on the screen. I would never know for sure when it might pop up. Is there any solution to this problem how to close it. If it's not closed, the script would not continue.
By Recovery scenario Manager we can handle the pop up exceptions.
4.How do you update your exisiting checkpoint properties?
Update Run option (Test > Update Run) on tests to update checkpoint property values.
5.Can you import Microsoft Excel files or sheets that contain merged cells into the Data Table.
You cannot import Microsoft Excel files or sheets that contain merged cells into the Data Table.
By using shared ACTION s
2. What is TOProperty and ROperoperty
TO Property is a TEST OBJECT property which will have minimum no.of properties and methods where as RUNTIME OBJECT property will have all the possible properties and methods which would helpful in runtime.
3. I am running the script and at some point the pop up might appears on the screen. I would never know for sure when it might pop up. Is there any solution to this problem how to close it. If it's not closed, the script would not continue.
By Recovery scenario Manager we can handle the pop up exceptions.
4.How do you update your exisiting checkpoint properties?
Update Run option (Test > Update Run) on tests to update checkpoint property values.
5.Can you import Microsoft Excel files or sheets that contain merged cells into the Data Table.
You cannot import Microsoft Excel files or sheets that contain merged cells into the Data Table.
QTP QnA1
1. How do you handle exceptions in QTP?
By using Recovery Scenario Manager
2.What are the different kind of exceptions that can we handle?
1. pop Window
2. object State
3. Test run error
4. Application crash
3.What is Library file ?
Library of user defined functions that you want to call frequently from other test . When you load a script its functions are automatically compiled and remain in memory, you can call that directily. Extension of the LIBRARY file is file_name.VBS
4.How do you call Actions from main script?
In the Expert View, an action called by another action is displayed within the parent action with the following syntax:
Call RunAction (ActionName, Run_Setting, FromRow - ToRow)
For example:
Call RunAction("Select Flight", 0, "1 - 1")
5. How do you call function in the library file?
First execute the library file Using EXECUTEFILE method then call the function which is in that library.
6. What the getROProperty and getTOProperty method will do?
Gets the value of RUN-TIME OBJECT property value
Example:getROproperty(background) this would give you the background color of the object
getTOProperty : - Gets the value of Test OBJECT property value
By using Recovery Scenario Manager
2.What are the different kind of exceptions that can we handle?
1. pop Window
2. object State
3. Test run error
4. Application crash
3.What is Library file ?
Library of user defined functions that you want to call frequently from other test . When you load a script its functions are automatically compiled and remain in memory, you can call that directily. Extension of the LIBRARY file is file_name.VBS
4.How do you call Actions from main script?
In the Expert View, an action called by another action is displayed within the parent action with the following syntax:
Call RunAction (ActionName, Run_Setting, FromRow - ToRow)
For example:
Call RunAction("Select Flight", 0, "1 - 1")
5. How do you call function in the library file?
First execute the library file Using EXECUTEFILE method then call the function which is in that library.
6. What the getROProperty and getTOProperty method will do?
Gets the value of RUN-TIME OBJECT property value
Example:getROproperty(background) this would give you the background color of the object
getTOProperty : - Gets the value of Test OBJECT property value
QTP QnA
1.What is the main difference between win runner and Quicktestprofessional?
1.Data Table integration is much easier and simpler with Quick Test Pro.
2. Shared Object Repository
3.Detailed Report
4.Quick learning objects.
5.Data Driven Testing is easier with more options in Quick Test Pro.
6. Parameterization is much easier in Quick Test Pro and basically anything in Quick Test Pro can be parameterized (statements, checkpoints and the Object Repository).
2. What is object repository?
Object Repository is place which will have all the information about the object such as logical name and physical description of objects with tree view to see the hierarchy of the object.
3.What is the default wait time in QTP?
2 seconds
4.How do declare gloabal variable?
Environment(Variable_name)
5.Is block of comments is possible in QTP?
NO.
6. How many check points are there ?What are they?
1. Standard Check points
2. Text Checkpoints
3. Text Area Checkpoints
4. Bitmap Checkpoints
5. Database Checkpoints
6. Accessbility Checkpoints
7. XML Checkpoints
7. What is extension of Library files?
Filename.VBS
8. What is extension of Object Repository files?
Filename.TSR
9. What is extension of Recovery files?
Filename.QRS
10.What do you run your library files in QTP?
By using EXECUTEFILE (PATH)
11.What are the recording modes available in QTP?
Analog Recording , Low level recording.
12.How do you integrate with Test Director?
By using Testdirector connection wizard
13.What are the different types of Object repository?
1.Pre-action Repository
2. Shared Repository
14.What are the content of Result summary window?
1.Name of the Test
2.Test
3.Result name
4.Run Started
5.Run Ended
6.Itration
7.Status
15.Different types of View?
1. Tree view
2. Expert View
16.What are all the run modes available in QTP
1.Normal mode 2.Update mode
17.What is synchronization point?
synchronization points enable you to solve anticipated timing problems between the test and your application. For example , if you create a test that opens a database application you can put a synchronization point that cause the test to wait until the database records are loaded.
18.What is the use of WAIT method?
It stops the test for certain time limits.
Syntax : wait(time in seconds)
19. What is the difference between wait and synchronization point ?
synchronization point will wait for certain process to complete but the wait method will stop the test for specified time limit only.
20.what is Assistive properties ?
When the object has not been identified by mandatory properties then the Assistive properties are take place to identify the object.
21. How does the QTP recognize objects in the application?
By using Object Repository.
22.How do you select your choice from the list box?
Object.Select “Choice”
1.Data Table integration is much easier and simpler with Quick Test Pro.
2. Shared Object Repository
3.Detailed Report
4.Quick learning objects.
5.Data Driven Testing is easier with more options in Quick Test Pro.
6. Parameterization is much easier in Quick Test Pro and basically anything in Quick Test Pro can be parameterized (statements, checkpoints and the Object Repository).
2. What is object repository?
Object Repository is place which will have all the information about the object such as logical name and physical description of objects with tree view to see the hierarchy of the object.
3.What is the default wait time in QTP?
2 seconds
4.How do declare gloabal variable?
Environment(Variable_name)
5.Is block of comments is possible in QTP?
NO.
6. How many check points are there ?What are they?
1. Standard Check points
2. Text Checkpoints
3. Text Area Checkpoints
4. Bitmap Checkpoints
5. Database Checkpoints
6. Accessbility Checkpoints
7. XML Checkpoints
7. What is extension of Library files?
Filename.VBS
8. What is extension of Object Repository files?
Filename.TSR
9. What is extension of Recovery files?
Filename.QRS
10.What do you run your library files in QTP?
By using EXECUTEFILE (PATH)
11.What are the recording modes available in QTP?
Analog Recording , Low level recording.
12.How do you integrate with Test Director?
By using Testdirector connection wizard
13.What are the different types of Object repository?
1.Pre-action Repository
2. Shared Repository
14.What are the content of Result summary window?
1.Name of the Test
2.Test
3.Result name
4.Run Started
5.Run Ended
6.Itration
7.Status
15.Different types of View?
1. Tree view
2. Expert View
16.What are all the run modes available in QTP
1.Normal mode 2.Update mode
17.What is synchronization point?
synchronization points enable you to solve anticipated timing problems between the test and your application. For example , if you create a test that opens a database application you can put a synchronization point that cause the test to wait until the database records are loaded.
18.What is the use of WAIT method?
It stops the test for certain time limits.
Syntax : wait(time in seconds)
19. What is the difference between wait and synchronization point ?
synchronization point will wait for certain process to complete but the wait method will stop the test for specified time limit only.
20.what is Assistive properties ?
When the object has not been identified by mandatory properties then the Assistive properties are take place to identify the object.
21. How does the QTP recognize objects in the application?
By using Object Repository.
22.How do you select your choice from the list box?
Object.Select “Choice”
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